ChristianAnswers.Net WebBible™ Encyclopedia
Son of man
This term is used in different ways in the Bible…
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Denotes mankind generally, with special reference to their weakness and frailty (Job 25:6; Ps. 8:4; 144:3; 146:3; Isa. 51:12, etc.).
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It is a title frequently given to the prophet Ezekiel, probably to remind him of his human weakness.
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In the New Testament it is used forty-three times as a distinctive title of the Savior. In the Old Testament it is used only in Ps. 80:17 and Dan. 7:13 with this application. It denotes the true humanity of our Lord. He had a true body (Hebrews 2:14; Luke 24:39) and a rational soul. He was perfect man.
Author: Matthew G. Easton.
ALSO SEE:
- Is Jesus Christ a man, or is he God? Answer
- If Jesus is God, how could he die? If Jesus died on the cross, then how can he be alive today? Answer
- If Jesus was the Son of God, why did He call Himself the Son of Man? Answer
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